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Waking Up with a Spot on Groin and Dealing with Baseless Misgivings (Waswasa)

Answered by Shaykh Faraz A. Khan

Question: (1) I wanted to ask what if someone wakes up in the morning with a small dried white spot [no more then this => ( )] on groin. Don’t really know what it is and I am not certain if its a wet dream or not. There are no spots on my underwear too… So does it makes ghusl obligatory?..

(2) I’m confused and can’t even do ghusl again cause i swore to God [qasam in urdu] i wont make ghusl due to this reason cause i am not sure.

(3) I have so much waswasa about my prayers not being valid..

 

 

Answer: Assalamu alaikum wa rahmatullah,

I pray this finds you in the best of health and states.

(1) You would not need to perform the ritual bath (ghusl) in that situation, since you don’t recall a wet dream. You could simply wash your organ and then make ablution (wudu) and then pray.

(2) With regards to the oath, you should break it so that you may perform ghusl when needed. You would need to do the requisite expiation for breaking the oath.

Expiation is to to feed ten poor persons (2 meals each), or to clothe them (1 garment each), or to give them the equivalent monetary value. If you are unable to do that, you must fast three consecutive days. [Maydani/Quduri, Lubab fi Sharh al-Kitab]

(3) With respect to obsessive misgivings (waswasa), keep in mind that the default assumption of all acts of worship is soundness and validity, and this default is at the level of certainty. Certainty is not lifted by doubts or misgivings, but rather only by another certainty or very high likelihood.

Learn sacred knowledge under qualified instructors, as that is one of the most potent weapons to combat such misgivings. I would suggest the following course, for example:

Absolute Essentials of Islam: Beliefs & Worship

Lastly, please see the following link for more information regarding dealing with waswasa:

A Reader on Waswasa (Baseless Misgivings)

And Allah knows best.
wassalam
Faraz

Checked & Approved by Faraz Rabbani

The Expiation (Kaffara) for Having Sex While Fasting

Answered by Shaykh Faraz A. Khan

Question: 1. I was involved in a sexual activity while fasting during ramadhan with a woman. After having sex i discontinued my fast. At that time i was not married. Please suggest me kaffara.

2. During one Ramadhan i had sex with my wife while fasting. This happened several times in that month. That time we were newly married. Sometimes i use to fast and some times i was not but my wife continued her fasting whole month. We use to sleep together after offering fajr prayer. It was me who initiated that act and we use to continue our fast even after having sex. Can you please let me know the kaffara for in the light of Quran and Sunnah for both of us.

Answer: Assalamu alaikum wa rahmatullah,

I pray this finds you in the best of health and states. May Allah reward you for your desire to repent and make amends, and grant you ease in doing so.

Tawba: Repentance

Regarding the first question, this was a very grave sin in Sharia. You must make sincere repentance for it: seek Allah’s forgiveness while feeling real remorse, cease doing this act (if you still do it), and resolve never to do it again.

Regarding the second question, again both you and your wife must make sincere repentance for these acts.

[Nawawi, Riyad al-Salihin]

Kaffara: Expiation

In terms of kaffara, you and your wife each owe one kaffara, which is to fast for 60 consecutive days, without missing a single day. This must be done in a time without any of the days of Id/Tashriq (Shawwal 1, Dhul Hijja 10-13), since it is sinful to fast on any of those five days.

If one does not fast the 60 days consecutively, one would have to restart the 60 days.

The only exception to this ruling is for a woman in menstruation or post-natal bleeding. She would abstain from fasting on the days of menstruation/lochia, and then resume immediately upon becoming pure. If she delayed the fast after becoming pure, she would have to restart the 60 days.

Makeups

In addition to the kaffara, each of you must calculate the number of days on which this occurred, and then make up that number. This is because intercourse while fasting does break the fast, so those days did not count even if you both continued to abstain from food/drink the rest of the day.

As opposed to the kaffara however, these makeups do not have to be made up consecutively.

Both of these rulings — kaffara and makeups — pertain to both you and your wife, even if it was you who initiated the act.
[Tahtawi/Shurunbulali, Hashiyat Tahtawi ala Maraqi al-Falah]

And Allah knows best.

wassalam
Faraz

Checked & Approved by Faraz Rabbani

Fulfilling a Religious Vow (Nadhr) To Avoid a Sin

Answered by Shaykh Faraz A. Khan

Question: My question, specifically, is if you yourself placed terms within your oath to Allah, such as “If I commit such-and-such sin, I will fast 5 consecutive days”, and you happen to break this oath, will you only have to fulfill these terms? Or will you also have to pay kaffarah on top of it?

Answer: Assalamu alaikum wa rahmatullah,

I pray this finds you in the best of health and states.

Such a statement is a religious vow (nadhr), yet its form is a conditional statement that one does not want to occur (namely, committing the sin).

The ruling for such a statement is that if one does commit the sin, then one must either:

(a) fulfill the vow by fasting 5 consecutive days, or instead

(b) perform the general expiation of breaking an oath (yamin), which is to feed ten poor persons (2 meals each), or to clothe them (1 garment each), or to give them the equivalent monetary value. If one is unable to do that, one must fast three consecutive days.

So one has the choice of either (a) or (b).

[Ala’uddin Ibn Abidin, Hadiyaa Ala’iyya]

And Allah knows best.

wassalam
Faraz

Checked & Approved by Faraz Rabbani

Hajj Tamattu`: Does an Invalid Umra Affect the Hajj?

Answered by Shaykh Faraz A. Khan

Question: I have a question regarding Hajj tamattu’ in the Hanafi school.   If one performs Hajj tamattu’ and later finds out that their Umrah was invalid or corrupt, does this have any effect on the Hajj. In other words, would the Hajj still be considered valid?

Answer: Assalamu alaikum wa rahmatullah,

I pray this finds you in the best of health and states.

No, an invalid or corrupt umra would not affect the validity of the hajj itself. The person doing tamattu` enters a new ihram state for hajj after the umra.

However, a completely invalid umra (which is rare) would invalidate one’s “tamattu` status”: one would then be doing a “hajj ifrad”.

Expiation would be needed for the violation[s] done while on umra; the particular expiation would depend on what violation was committed.

[Ibn Abidin, Radd al-Muhtar; Zada; Majma` al-Anhur; Shurunbulali, Imdad al-Fattah; Ascent to Felicity]

And Allah knows best.

wassalam
Faraz

Checked & Approved by Faraz Rabbani

Is It Permissible to Lie In Order to Conceal Past Sins?

Answered by Shaykh Faraz A. Khan

Question: My mother asked me about things in my past I may have done. To one of the questions, I replied “wallah no” because I couldn’t tell the truth as it may jeopardize my relationship with my family. I lied and swore, and I completely understand that this is sinful, but I did it to protect myself essentially. Am I obliged to perform the kaffarah? And if so, how do I go about it? I understand that I can feed 10 people. Does that mean I can give ten different people maybe like 10 dollars to buy a meal?

Answer: Assalamu alaikum wa rahmatullah,

I pray this finds you in the best of health and faith.

A general principle in Islamic law is that it is sinful to reveal one’s past sins. One must keep them concealed, as sincere repentance wipes them out and so it is as if the person never committed them.

Scholars mention that because of this principle, one may lie when confronted about past sins [assuming doing so does not entail neglect of another’s right, such as not returning stolen money]. Such a lie would not be unlawful.

Yet even when lying is permissible, it would be religiously more precautionary to use misleading words instead of outright lying. [Nahlawi, Durar al-Mubaha]

For example, if asked about a sin in the past that one did commit, one could say, “Alhamdulillah, Allah protected me from that,” intending one’s sincere repentance after the sin, i.e., that Allah protected me from falling into it again…

With respect to your swearing by Allah, because it is not an oath to do or not do something in the future, no expiation (kaffara) is due. [Mawsili, Mukhtar]

And Allah knows best.

wassalam

Faraz

Checked & Approved by Faraz Rabbani

Related Answers:

Can We Deny Having Committed Sins After We’ve Repented From Them?

Can One Lie About Past Sins?

Is It Obligatory to Fulfill My Promises?

Answered by Sidi Faraz A. Khan

Question: salam,

-if i made a vow/promise/oath/covenant to Allah that i would wear hijab but i do it in my head because i didn’t know that it wont be valid if its not done verbally, i thought it will be valid if you do it in your head. Now i know that it wont be valid if its not done verbally so must i still keep it? I know i will be sinful for not wearing hijab but in this case will i be held accountable for breaking my vow/oath/covenant/promise?

-what is the fatwa in this case: if for example i made a promise/vow/oath/covenant with god that i will stop gossiping about people but i cant remember if i did it verbally or in my head? In this
case i know i will be sinful for gossiping but also for breaking my vow/oath/covenant/promise?

Answer: Assalamu alaikum wa rahmatullah,

I pray this finds you in the best of health and faith.

The Criteria of Promises

According to the prophetic hadith, one of the signs of a hypocrite is that “when he makes a promise, he breaks it.” [Muslim] Imam Khalil Nahlawi explains that what is meant by this hadith is that it is unlawful for one to make a promise while intending to break it, as such an intention is deemed hypocrisy.

If one intends to fulfill it, then making a promise is permissible.

One should strive his utmost to fulfill a promise, as doing so is sunna. Breaking a promise that one intended to fulfill, then, is disliked and unbecoming of a believer. (And if the promise were depended upon by another to make a financial commitment or significant undertaking, then it would be religiously binding to fulfill, as contemporary scholars clarify.)

[Nahlawi, Durar Mubaha fil Hazr wal Ibaha]

The above criteria would apply as well when making an internal promise to Allah Most High, without verbally pronouncing a vow or oath, as breaking the latter would necessitate expiation [depending on the vow/oath].

Your Particular Questions

Having said that:

(1) If something is already obligatory or prohibited, then it is of no consequence whether one makes a non-verbal promise to Allah to adhere to it. It remains an obligation or prohibition, and failure to abide by it entails sin.

(2) A vow or oath takes effect only if one is sure that one pronounced it verbally. If one cannot remember, one assumes it was an internal promise and so no expiation is due. But again, to break a promise that was made without resolve to fulfill it entails sin.

And Allah alone gives success.

wassalam

Faraz A. Khan

Checked & Approved by Faraz Rabbani